After doing some research at oecd.stat public webpage. I figure it out that there is a difference between both countries in how the GDP is divided.
If we look at the "Gross domestic product (expenditure approach)" for both.
If we look at the "Gross domestic product (expenditure approach)" for both.
EURO
AREA (19 countries)
|
U.S.
|
|||
11165452.30
|
Gross domestic
product (expenditure approach
|
18624475
|
||
8345618.60
|
75%
|
Final consumption expenditure
|
83%
|
15478782
|
6073240.00
|
54%
|
Households and
Non-profit institutions serving households
|
69%
|
12820694
|
2272378.60
|
20%
|
Final
consumption expenditure of general government
|
14%
|
2658088
|
490648.00
|
External
balance of goods and services
|
-521239
|
||
2329185.7
|
Gross capital
formation
|
3666933
|
It`s interesting to check that meanhwile euro area household consumption represents 54% of the GDP , for US, this is almost a 70%. Huge difference in my opinion.
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